This is not the first time Anwar is being charged for sodomy. In fact he was charged under Penal code for sodomy during 1998 (Sodomy I). The question: is this really a political conspiracy or he really did sodomize the victims?
Let's ignore the first hypothesis, and presume the second one is the case.
Did Anwar penetrate Saiful's ass at the latter's consent?
If he did not, why Saiful did not struggle? Apparently he is younger and logically can be perceived as stronger than Anwar.
If he did, why did Saiful come up after 3 days to sue Anwar for penetrated him?